Some Difficult Questions
THAT EVERY JEHOVAH'S WITNESS SHOULD BE ASKED
Justin Martyr (110-165 AD): "... nor to know that the Father of the universe has a Son; who also, being the first-begotten Word of God, is even God." - First Apology of Justin, Ch LXIII.
"... but now you will permit me first to recount the prophecies, which I wish to do in order to prove that Christ is called both God and the Lord of hosts ..." - Dialogue with Trypho, Ch XXXVI.
"Therefore these words testify explicitly that He is witnessed to by Him who established these things, as deserving to be worshipped, as God and as Christ." - Ibid, Ch LXIII.
Irenaeus (120-202 AD):
"... and to raise up anew all flesh of the whole human race, in order that to Christ Jesus, our Lord, and God, and Saviour, and King ..." - Against Heresies, Bk 1, Ch 10.
"But that He is in His own right , beyond all men who ever lived, God, and Lord, and King Eternal, and the Incarnate Word, proclaimed by all the prophets and apostles, and by the Spirit Himself, may be seen by all who have attained to even a small portion of the truth." - Against Heresies, Bk 3, Ch 19.
Clement of Alexandria (153-217 AD):
"For 'before the morning star it was;' and 'in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'" and "This Word, then, the Christ, the cause of both our being at first (for He was in God) and of our well being, this very Word has now appeared as man, He alone being both, both God and man ..." and "The Word, who in the beginning bestowed on us life as Creator when He formed us, taught us to live well when He appeared as our Teacher; that as God He might afterwards conduct us to the life which never ends." - Exhortation to the Heathen, Ch 1.
Tertullian (145-220 AD):
"Him we believe to have been sent by the Father into the virgin, and to have been born of her - being both Man and God, the Son of Man and the Son of God, and to have been called by the name of Jesus Christ." and "... while the mystery of the dispensation is still guarded, which distributes the Unity into a Trinity, placing them in their order the three Persons - the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost ..." - Against Praxeas, Ch 2.
"With these did He then speak, in the Unity of the Trinity, as with His ministers and witnesses." and "...I mean the Word of God, 'through whom all things were made, and without whom nothing was made.' Now if He too is God, according to John (who says) 'The Word was God'..." - Against Praxeas, Ch 12.
Hippolytus (170-236 AD):
"For he speaks to this effect: 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'" and "...'Go ye and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.' And by this He showed, that whosoever omitted any one of these, failed in glorifying God perfectly. For it is through this Trinity that the Father is glorified. For the Father willed, the Son did, the Spirit manifested. The whole Scriptures, then, proclaim this truth." - Against the Heresy of One Noetus, Ch 14.
"For Christ is the God above all, and He has arranged to wash away sin from human beings." - The Refutation of All Heresies, Bk 10, Ch 30.
Origen (185-254 AD):
"From all which we learn that the person of the Holy Spirit was of such authority and dignity, that saving baptism was not complete except by the authority of the most excellent Trinity of them all ..." - Origen de Principiis, 1.3.2
"For it is one and the same thing to have a share in the Holy Spirit, which is (the Spirit) of the Father and the Son, since the nature of the Trinity is one and incorporeal." - Origen de Principiis, 4.1.32
To read the entire text containing the above quotes online, click Early Church Fathers
Bishop - comes from the Greek word "episkopos" - Acts 20:28, Phil 1:1, 1Tim 3:1,2, Tit 1:7. See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Also, see footnote on pg. 35 of Jehovah's Witnesses Proclaimers of God's Kingdom to see how the present English word "bishop" came from the Greek word "episkopos".
Priest - comes from the Greek word "presbuteros" - Acts 16:4, 1Tim 5:17, Jas 5:14, Tit 1:5, 1Pet 5:1. See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Also, see footnote on pg. 36 of Jehovah's Witnesses Proclaimers of God's Kingdom to see how the present English word "priest" came from the Greek "presbuteros".
Deacon - comes from the Greek word "diakonos" - 1Tim 3:8,10,12, Phil 1:1. See Gr-Engl Interlinear.
Clement of Rome (Phil 4:3, ?-101AD):
"For their own peculiar services are assigned to the high priest, and their own proper place is prescribed to the priests ... The layman is bound by the laws that pertain to laymen." - Letter to the Corinthians, Ch. 40, and, "And thus preaching though countries and cities, they appointed the first fruits [of their labors], having first proved them by the Spirit, to be bishops and deacons of those who should afterwards believe." - Ibid., Ch. 42, and, "Our Apostles also knew, through our Lord Jesus Christ, that there would be strife on account of the office of the episcopate. For this reason, therefore, inasmuch as they had obtained a perfect foreknowledge of this, they appointed those [ministers] already mentioned, and afterwards gave instructions, that when these should fall asleep, other approved men should succeed them in their ministry ... Blessed are those presbyters, who having finished their course before now, ..." - Ibid, Ch. 44. To see this entire text oonline, click Early Church Fathers
If so, then does that mean that this teaching of the Watchtower Society, which they have taught for decades, was a false teaching?
Since the Watchtower Society teaches that they are the "one channel that the Lord is using during the last days of this system of things" (Jehovah's Witnesses - Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg. 626) and that the governing body is "the mouthpiece of Jehovah God", does this mean that God changed His mind about this particular teaching?
Is it possible that God could change His mind?
Has the Watchtower Society ever changed their mind before about a teaching that they once taught as the truth?
Is it true that the Watchtower Society once taught that Armageddon was
going to occur in:
1914 - "The Time Is At Hand" - 1888 (1911 Ed.), pg 101; Zion's WT - 1/15/1892, pg 22
1918 - "The Finished Mystery" - 1917, pg. 62, 485
1925 - "Millions Now Living Will Never Die", 1920, pg 89-90; WT, 7/15/24, pg 211
During WW II - WT, 9/15/41, pg 288
1975 - KM, 6/69, pg 3; AWAKE!, 10/8/68, etc.
Before the end of the generation of 1914 - L.F., pg 154; AWAKE!, 10/8/95, pg 4?
Since the Watchtower Society claimed that their teaching of Armageddon coming before the "end of the generation of 1914" was "Jehovah's prophetic word" (WT-5/15/84, pg.6) and "the Creator's promise" (Awake!, 10/8/95, 9/22/95, 9/8/95, etc. pg.4), therefore speaking "in the name of Jehovah" (Deut 18:22, NWT), then according to Deut 18:20-22, does this mean that the Watchtower Society is a false prophet?
If so, are you aware of what the Bible says about false prophets? See Mt 7:15, 24:11, Mk 13:22, 2Pet 2:1, 1Jn 4:1, Rev 19:20, 20:10.
- That Christ returned invisibly in 1874? - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg. 54, 60, 68
- Against vaccinations? - Golden Age, Feb 4, 1931, pg. 293
Golden Age, Jan 5, 1929, pg. 502
- Against organ transplants? - Watchtower, 11/15/67, pg. 702
- That it was okay to celebrate Christmas and birthdays?
- That Christ was crucified? - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg. 68
- That Christ is the almighty of Rev 1:8? - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg. 15
- That the pyramid of Gizah was God's witness and was used to predict
the year of
Armageddon? - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg. 60
Since the WTS no longer teaches the above as "the truth", does this mean that the above teachings are false teachings? If so, does this mean that while the WTS taught the above as "truth", that they were really guilty of false teachings? How could the Watchtower Society ever be guilty of false teaching if it is Jehovah's organization and being directed by Jehovah God?
When the Watchtower Society changes it's teaching on something to the exact opposite of what it once taught as "the truth" (eg. Christ died on a cross/Christ didn't die on a cross; vaccinations violate God's laws/vaccinations are okay, etc.), is this like a light that gets brighter and brighter, or is it more like one light that is completely turned off and a totally new light turned on?
Since it appears that the WTS has changed its teachings many times to something that is the exact opposite of what was once taught as "the truth", how do you know that what is now taught as "the truth" isn't really a false teaching and won't someday be changed?
7. If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4 and Prov 8:22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?
8. If the holy spirit is God's impersonal active force, why is the holy spirit referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14?
9. Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?
10. Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...".
11. In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great crowd" (Lk 6:17), why did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23, "...your reward is great in heaven ..."?
12. If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only one hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
13. If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why does Jn 20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS ...", indicating that there was more than one nail used for his hands?
14. The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."?
15. In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest" if there is no conscious awareness after death?
16. In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?
17. Rev 22:12-13, in speaking of Jesus Christ, says, "... I am coming quickly ... I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end ...". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be? How can there be two firsts and two lasts?
18. The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" ( Gr - lord) as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios ( ) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
19. The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5-8).
20. Refering to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?
21. Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother ...". Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?
22. Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil ... the wild beast and the false prophet [already were]; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever." Where will the devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented day and night forever and ever" if not in hell?
23. In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)? Also In 1 Tim 2:5 Paul says, "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Jesus Christ." Why does Paul refer to Christ as "a man" if according to the WTS, Christ was a spirit anointed person devoid of a body when Paul wrote this?
24. If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9-11, who were of those who had been "slaughtered" (ie killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."? And If the human soul is the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
25. In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations ...in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit"?
- CATHOLIC APOLOGETICS -